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Biology Mock Test - 50 MCQ For NEET/AIIMS/ BSC NURSING/ SSUHS -Axom Future

Ace Your Competitive Exams with This NEET Biology Mock Test (50 MCQs)

Are you preparing for NEET, AIIMS, SSUHS BSc Nursing, D/B Pharm, or Paramedical entrance exams? Mastering biology is key to securing a top rank in these highly competitive exams, and practice makes perfect! To help you sharpen your skills, we’ve created an interactive NEET Biology Mock Test featuring 50 carefully selected multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering the full syllabus. Whether you're aiming for a medical, nursing, pharmacy, or paramedical career, this mock test is designed to boost your confidence and test your knowledge.

Why Take This Biology Mock Test?

This mock test is not just for NEET aspirants! It’s a versatile resource tailored for multiple competitive exams, including:

  • NEET: Perfect for testing core biology concepts required for medical entrance.
  • AIIMS: Challenges you with questions aligned with AIIMS’s rigorous standards.
  • SSUHS BSc Nursing: Covers essential topics for nursing entrance exams in Assam.
  • D/B Pharm: Includes key biology concepts relevant for pharmacy entrance tests.
  • Paramedical Courses: Helps you prepare for various paramedical entrance exams.

Here’s what makes this mock test a must-try:

  • Comprehensive Coverage: Questions span critical topics like genetics, reproduction, ecology, human physiology, and more.
  • Interactive Format: Each question is presented in a sleek, user-friendly box with instant feedback on submission.
  • Score & Answer Display: After submitting, see your score out of 50 and the correct answers with explanations.
  • Exam-Oriented: Questions are designed to mimic the difficulty and style of real exam papers.
  • Time-Efficient: Practice 50 high-quality MCQs in one sitting to assess your strengths and weaknesses.
Biology Mock Test - 50 MCQs

Biology Mock Test - 50 MCQs

Test your knowledge with this Biology mock test containing 50 multiple-choice questions covering key concepts from the full syllabus. Submit your answers to see your score and the correct answers!

1. The beginning of which of the following phase of Meiosis is recognised by dissolution of the synaptonemal complex?

A. Diplotene
B. Diakinesis
C. Pachytene
D. Leptotene

2. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is in

A. New Delhi
B. Lucknow
C. Bhopal
D. Kanpur

3. Another name for 'coitus interruptus' is

A. Periodic abstinence
B. Lactational amenorrhea
C. Withdrawal
D. Vaults

4. A typical angiosperm anther is with each lobe having theca.

A. Trilobed, two respectively
B. Bilobed, two respectively
C. Trilobed, three respectively
D. Tetralobed, two respectively

5. The Human genome project was a year project.

A. 30
B. 13
C. 23
D. 3

6. Which of the following are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution?

A. Saltation and Branching descent
B. Saltation and Mutation
C. Natural selection and Saltation
D. Branching descent and Natural selection

7. Golden rice is rich in...

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K

8. Which of the following is correct with respect to members of Solanaceae family?

A. Stamens four
B. Bisexual flowers
C. Fruit is drupe
D. Non-endospermous seeds

9. Fungal component of lichens is called as

A. Phycobiont
B. Mycobiont
C. Orion
D. Phycoerythrin

10. A tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of two Labia minora above the urethral opening is called as

A. Hymen
B. Clitoris
C. Labia majora
D. Infundibulum

11. _______ is the substrate for the enzyme betagalactosidase and it regulates switching on and off of the operon.

A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. Maltose

12. The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of

A. Only one of the parental characters in a dihybrid cross in the F2
B. The expression of both the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F2
C. Expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in F1
D. Expression of both the parental characters in a dihybrid cross in the F1

13. In prokaryotes, control of _______ is the predominant site for control of gene expression.

A. Rate of the transcriptional initiation
B. Rate of translation
C. Rate of transcriptional elongation
D. Rate of transcriptional termination

14. Proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice of infants is:

A. Renin
B. Trypsin
C. Nucleases
D. None of the above

15. Which of the following option correctly represents pH of saliva:

A. 1.8
B. 7.8
C. 6.8
D. 5

16. Another name for sound box:

A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi

17. Who demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent reaction?

A. Julius von Sachs
B. Joseph Priestley
C. T.W. Engelmann
D. Cornelius van Niel

18. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

A. 5.8S rRNA
B. 18S rRNA
C. 5S rRNA
D. 23S rRNA

19. The first cellular forms of life appeared about how many years ago?

A. 2 mya
B. 20 mya
C. 2000 mya
D. 20,000 mya

20. Mark the incorrect match:

A. Bulbil - Agave
B. Leaf buds - Bryophyllum
C. Offset - Parthenium
D. Rhizome - Ginger

21. The inner wall of pollen grains is made up of:

A. Sporopollenin
B. Hemicellulose
C. Chitin
D. Cellulose and Pectin

22. Production of seeds without fertilization is called as:

A. Apomixis
B. Parthenocarpy
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Apospory

23. Mark the incorrect statement:

A. Menstrual cycle involves disintegration of endometrium
B. Luteal phase is followed by ovulatory phase
C. During fertilization sperm comes in contact with zona pellucida of ovum
D. Secretions of acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of ovum

24. Rhizopus belongs to:

A. Phycomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Deuteromycetes

25. Fucus has life cycle

A. Haplo-diplontic
B. Haplontic
C. Diplontic
D. None of the above

26. Mark the incorrect feature of Liliaceae:

A. Perennial herbs
B. Petals five
C. Tricarpellary
D. Endospermous

27. Which of the following has RQ value of 0.7?

A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Organic acids
D. Fats

28. Deletions & insertions of base pairs causes:

A. Evolution
B. Point Mutations
C. Frame shift mutations
D. Turner’s syndrome

29. Which of the following medium was used for centrifugation of DNA in Meselson and Stahl experiment?

A. NaCl
B. KCl
C. CsCl
D. HCl

30. Sigma and Rho factors are used during:

A. DNA replication
B. Transcription in Prokaryotes
C. Transcription in Eukaryotes
D. Translation

31. Rheumatoid Arthritis is an example of:

A. Autosomal linked Dominant disorder
B. Sex linked recessive disorder
C. Auto immune disease
D. Aneuploidy

32. Life originated on earth nearly

A. 4.5 billion years back
B. 20 billion years back
C. 3.8 billion years back
D. 2 billion years back

33. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is called as:

A. Hypocotyl
B. Epicotyl
C. Pericotyl
D. None of the above

34. Phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is formed during which generation of Snapdragon:

A. F1
B. F2
C. F3
D. None of the above

35. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by:

A. Thomas Malthus
B. Sutton and Boveri
C. Thomas Hunt Morgan
D. Correns

36. Mark the odd one out with respect to Phyllotaxy:

A. Mustard
B. Sunflower
C. China rose
D. Guava

37. In which type of leaf a number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the Rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf:

A. Pinnately compound leaf
B. Palmately compound leaf
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above

38. The type of Placentation found in Lemon:

A. Parietal
B. Marginal
C. Axile
D. Free central

39. About what percentage of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma?

A. 70%
B. 7%
C. 17%
D. 97%

40. Which of the following condition is shown by Volvox?

A. Anisogamous
B. Isogamous
C. Oogamous
D. None of the above

41. Mark the incorrect match:

A. Asparagus: Liliaceae
B. Chilli: Solanaceae
C. Sesbania: Fabaceae
D. Indigofera: Liliaceae

42. In which of the following disease there is either mutation or deletion which ultimately results in reduced rate of synthesis of one of the globin chains that make up haemoglobin:

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Thalassemia
C. Haemophilia
D. Sickle cell Anaemia

43. Which of the following is incorrect about genetic code:

A. The code is degenerate
B. The code is universal
C. AUC act as initiator codon
D. The code is triplet

44. UTR are present at which end of mRNA:

A. 5'
B. 3'
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above

45. The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is

A. Kinetin
B. Zeatin
C. Ethane
D. Ethephon

46. Colostrum is an example of:

A. Naturally acquired Active Immunity
B. Artificially acquired Active Immunity
C. Naturally acquired Passive Immunity
D. Artificially acquired Passive Immunity

47. Which of the following cell is represented by blue green algae and Mycoplasma:

A. Prokaryotic cell
B. Eukaryotic cell
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above

48. Heroin belongs to which class of drugs?

A. Opioids
B. Cannabinoids
C. Coca alkaloid
D. None of the above

49. Another name for Biolistics is

A. Gene gun
B. Micro-injection
C. Micro-propagation
D. Spooling

50. Pro-insulin has an extra stretch called

A. A peptide
B. B peptide
C. C peptide
D. Disulphide bridges

Your Score: /50

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